Pharma Tips

GPAT Exam Paper -2012 With Key Answers

By: Pharma Tips | Views: 9246 | Date: 09-May-2012

The Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT 2012) would be conducted under the aegis of National Monitoring Committee, All India Council for Technical Education, New Delhi by The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, Vadodara, as per AICTE Advt. No.Academic/11(02)/2011.

GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST-2012
(GPAT 2012)

GPAT-2012

All India Council for Technical Education
New Delhi

The Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT 2012) would be conducted under the aegis of National Monitoring Committee, All India Council for Technical Education, New Delhi by The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, Vadodara, as per AICTE Advt. No.Academic/11(02)/2011.

GPAT Paper, 2012 | Find out GPAT 2012 Question Paper with key answers Below of Article Page

GPAT-2012 PAPER

{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}

Q.1.Which of thefollowing respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drugbiotransformation reactions?
(A)    Oxidation and Glucuronidation
(B)    Reduction and Acetylation
(C)    Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation
(D)    Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation

Q.2 Which one ofthe following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action?
(A)   Dopamine   (B)   Epinephrine    (C)  Digoxin    (D)   Isoprenaline

Q.3 Which one ofthe following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first linetherapy for heart failure and has showndecreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayeddisease progression?
(A) Cardiacglycosides                (C) Renin Antagonists
(B) ACE Inhibitors(ACEIs)           (D)   Nitrites

Q.4 Which one ofthe following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management ofType-2 diabetes mellitus?
(A)    Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2)
(B)    Glucose transporter-1 (GLUT1)
(C)    Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLT1)
(D)    Glucose transporter-2 (GLUT2)

Q.5 Which one ofthe following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk ofinfection with single exposure?
(A)    Transfusion of blood and blood products
(B)    Perinatal - from mother to child
(C)    Sexual contacts with infected partners
(D)    Syringe sharing with drug addicts

Q.6 Which of the followings are the critical neurotransmitters playing majorrole in depression?
(A)    Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine
(B)    Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin
(C)    Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid
(D)    Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid

Q.7 A 55 yearsold man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last fourmonths. Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of thefollowings is the right addition to his therapy to manageperipheral neuritis?
(A)   Cyanocobalamin    (B)   α-Lipoic acid
(C)   Pyridoxine           (D)   Prednisolone

Q.8 What is theprimary mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
(A)    Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
(B)    Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
(C)    Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
(D)    Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels

Q.9     Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions andarrhythmia?
(A)   Prednisolone  (B)   Salmeterol (C)  Zafirlukast   (D)   Theophylline

Q.10 Which oneof the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium andcalcium channels?
(A)   Quinidine    (B)  Lignocaine    (C)  Amiodarone      (D)   Flecainide

Q.11 A 48 years old woman ishaving the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin.These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings?
(A)   Over use of corticosteroid    (B)  Hypothyroidism
(C)   Estrogen deficiency           (D)   Over use of thyroxin sodium

Q.12 Increasedrisk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs usedin the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonlyused drugs, alone or in combination, for the management of Type-2 diabetesmellitus:
[P] : Metformin    [Q]: Pioglitazone
[R]: Glipizide        [S] : Sitagliptin
Choose the correct combination which is weight neutral and without risk ofhypoglycemia.
(A)   P and Q    (B)   Q and R   (C)   R and S    (D)   P and S

Q.13   Which one of the following receptors is NOT a ligand-gated ion channel receptor?
(A)   Nicotinic Receptor    (B)   5HT3 - Receptor
(C)   GABAA - Receptor   (D)   H2 - Receptor

Q.14 Which oneof the following classes of drugs causes side effects like dryness of mouth,tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitationof glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?
(A)    Anti-adrenergic       (B)  Anti-cholinergic
(C)   An ti-serotonergic    (D)  Anti-dopaminergic

Q.15 Which ofthe following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agentsused in rheumatoid arthritis?
(A)   Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1
(B)    Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids
(C)    Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes
(D)    Adhesion factor and Monoamineoxidase A

Q.16 Which one of the followingsis a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
(A)    They have an affinity for the agonist binding site onreceptor
(B)    They have no intrinsic activity
(C)    They cause parallel rightward shift of the control doseresponse curve
(D)    Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved intheir presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.

Q.17 Atypical antipsychoticsdiffer from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them asatypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of theatypical antipsychotics?
(A)    Sustained hyperprolactinemia
(B)    Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms
(C)    Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)
(D)    Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamineblockade

Q. 18 Which one of the followingdrugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
(A)   Hydralazine    (B)   Minoxidil
(C)   Diazoxide       (D)   Sodiumnitroprusside

Q.19 Antiviral action of purineanalogues is primarily related to the followings:
[Pj : Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q] : Inhibition of DNA polymerase
[Rl : Immunomodulation            [S] :Inhibition of viral penetration
Choose the correct option:
(A)   R is correct and Q is incorrect   (B)   Q is correct and S is incorrect
(C)    P is correct and R is incorrect   (D)   S is correct and P is incorrect

Q.20    All of thegiven four drugs are sympathomimetics:
[P] : Adrenaline         [Q]: Isoprenaline
[R] : Phenylephrine    [S] : Noradrenaline
Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.
(A)    P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(B)    Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(C)    R and S increase systolic blood pressure
(D)   P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure

Q.21    All of thegiven four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.
[P] : Gallamine       [Q]: Succinylcholine
[R] : Vecuronium    [S] : d-Tubocurarine
Choose the correct statement about them.
(A)    P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(B)    Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(C)    R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(D)    P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

Q.22    Which oneof the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety ofmalignancies?
(A)   Imatinib    (B)  Paclitaxel    (C)   Ezetimibe   (D)   Mitomycin

Q.23    Which oneof the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detectedin urine?
(A)    Estrogens
(B)    Progesterone
(C.)   Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
(D)    Corticotropic Hormone

Q.24    Followingsare some opioid analgesics:
[P] : Morphine         [Q]: Pethidine
[R] : Pentazocine    [S] : Fentanyl
Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.
(A)   P>Q>R>S    (B)  Q>P>R>S       (C)   R>P>Q>S   (D)   S>P>Q>R

Q.25   Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:
[P] : Peptic ulcer                [Q] :Bronchial asthma
[R] : Nephrotic syndrome      [S] : Myasthenia gravis
Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatmentof these diseases.
(A) P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT
(B) P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT
(C) Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT
(D) P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT

Q.26 Which one of the followingstatements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?
(A) These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes
(B) These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance
(C) These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to ß-lactamand aminoglycoside antibiotics
(D) These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity

Q.27    Increasedserum levels of which one of the followings may be associated with decreasedrisk of atherosclerosis?
(A)   VLDL    (B)   LDL
(C)   HDL     (D)   Total Cholesterol

Q.28    Metformincauses the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that.
(A)    Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis
(B)    Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles
(C)   Enhances sensitivity to insulin
(D)   Increases HbA1c by 1% to 2%

Q.29    Misoprostolhas a cytoprotective action on gastrointestinal mucosa because of one of thefollowing actions. Identify that.
(A)    It enhances secretion of mucus and bicarbonate ion
(B)    It neutralizes hydrochloric acid in stomach
(C)    It antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(D)    It is bactericidal to H. pylori

Q.30 Which of the following drugscan precipitate bronchial asthma?
[P] : Indomethacin    [Q] : Codeine phosphate
[R] : Rabeprazole    [S] : Theophylline
Choose the correct option.
(A)   P and R can do that    (B)   P and Qcan do that
(C)   R and S can do that    (D)   S and Qcan do that

Q.31 Which one of the followingalkaloids is derived from Lysine?
(A)   Emetine    (B)Chelidonine     (C)   Lobeline     (D)Stachydrine

Q.32Histologically the barks of Cinnamomum cassia and Cinnamomum zeylanicum differ in one of the following features. Identify that.
(A)   Sclerieds
(B)   Phloem Fibers
(C)   Pericyclic Fibres
(D) Cortex

Q.33   The following characteristic properties are given in context of saponins:
[P] : Saponins give precipitate by shaking with water.
[Q] : Saponins are diterpenes and give foam on shaking with water.
[R] : Saponins are triterpenoidal compounds and cause haemolysis of erythrocytes.
[S] : They are steroidal or triterpenoidal compounds with tendency to reduce surface tension ofwater.
Choose the correct option.
(A)    P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B)    P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C)    P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(D)    P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true

Q.34   Read the given statements about the constituents of Shellac:
[P] : Shellolic acid, a major componentof alicyclic fraction is responsible for colour.
[Q]: Shellolic acid, a major component of   aromatic fraction isresponsible for colour.
[R] : Shellolic acid is a major component of aliphatic fraction and laccaicacid is a
component of aromatic fraction.
[S] : Aliphatic components are shellolic acid which is alicyclic and aleuraticacid
which is acyclic, while laccaic acid is an aromatic colouring principle.
What is the correct combination of options?
(A)    P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B)    P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is true
(C)    P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D)    P is true; Q is false; R is false; S is true

Q.35   Major component of Cymbopogon citratus is citral which is utilized commerciallyfor the followings:
[P] : Synthesis ofVitamin Adirectly from citral
[Q] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone
[R] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone followed byconversion to a-ionone which is very important intermediatefor carotenoid synthesis
[S] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first conversion of citral to T-ionone followedby conversion to P-ionone which is an important intermediate for carotenoidsynthesis
Which is the correct combination of options?
(A)   P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B)   P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C)   P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D)   P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is false

Q.36   Which one of the following constituents is reported to have anti-hepatotoxicactivity?
(A) Podophyllotoxin   (C)   Linalool
(B) Andrographoloid   (D)   Safranal

Q.37   Geranial and Neral are the monoterpene aldehyde constituents of volatile oil.Read the following statements about them:
[P] : Geranial and Neral are both optical isomers
[Q] : Geranial and Neral are both geometric isomers
[R] : Geranial has Z configuration and Neral has E configuration
[S] : Geranial has E configuration and Neral has Z configuration
(A)   Choose the correct combination of answers for them.
(B)    P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is false
(C)    P is true; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D)    P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false

Q.38   All of the followings applicable to Lignans are correct statements except forone. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
(A)    Lignans are formed by the dimerization of thephenylpropane moiety
(B)    Podophyllotoxin can be termed phytochemically as a lignan
(C)    Lignans can be formed by cyclization of phenylpropanenucleus
(D)    Lignans are the secondary metabolites formed from theShikimic acid pathway

Q.39 Naringin, obtained from orange peel, can be named as one ofthe followings. Identify the correct name.
(A)   5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of f
lavanone
(B)    5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavanone
(C)    5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavone
(D)    5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavone

Q.40Rhizomes  of Zingiber officinale contain  some sesquiterpenehydrocarbons.  Some hydrocarbons are given below:
[P] :
ß-Bisabolene     [Q]:Gingerone A
[R] : Gingerol            [S] : Zingiberene
Identify the correct pair of constituents present in the rhizomes.
(A)   PandS    (B)   P and Q   (C)   Q and S    (D)   Q and R

Q.41 Listedbelow are the chemical tests used to identify some groups of phytoconstituents.Identify the test for the detection of the purine alkaloids.
(A) Keller-Killani Test    (C)   Shinoda Test
(B) Murexide Test        (D)   Vitali-Morin Test

Q.42   Given below are four statements in context of Hecogenin:
[P] : It is a saponin
[Q] : It is useful for the semi-synthesis of steroidal drugs
[R] : It is not a glycoalkaloid
[S] : It is obtained from Dioscorea tubers
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P, Q and R are correct while S is incorrect
(B)    P, Q and S are correct while R is incorrect
(C)    Q, R are correct while P, S are incorrect
(D)    All are correct statements

Q.43   Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of precursors. Identify the correct pair.
(A)    Ornithine and Phenylalanine
(B)    Tyrosine and Tryptophan
(C)    Tryptophan and Dopamine
(D)    Tyrosine and Dopamine

Q.44    Study thefollowing statements:
[P] : Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids
[Q]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls
[R] : Lutein   and   zeaxanthin   are  required   to   control   age-related  macular degeneration
[S] : Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its glycoside Choose thecorrect answer.
(A)    P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect
(B)    Q and R are correct while P and S are incorrect
(C)    Statement P is the only correct statement
(D)    Statement S is the only correct statement

Q.45    Listedbelow are some phytoconstituents.
[P] : Galactomannan    [Q]: Glucomannan
[R] : Barbaloin              [S] :Phyllanthin
Identify the constituent(s) present in Aloe vera.
(A)   OnlyP    (B)   Q and R   (C)   Only S    (D)   P and S

Q.46    Choose thecorrect answer for the binomial nomenclature of fruits of star-anise.
(A)   Pimpinella anisum    (B)   Illiciumverum
(C)   Illicium anisatum    (D)   Illiciumreligiosum

Q.47    Givenherewith are two statements:
[P] : Digitoxin is a secondary glycoside from Digitalis purpurea
[Q]: Digitoxin is a partially hydrolysed glycoside of Purpurea glycoside A
Determine the correctness of the above statements.
(A)   Both P and Q are true    (B)   P istrue but Q is false
(C)   Both P and Q are false    (D)   P isfalse but Q is true

Q.48   Peruvoside is naturally obtained from one of the following plants. Identify thecorrect name.
(A)   Dioscorea    (B)   Ginseng   (C)   Liquorice    (D)   Thevetia

Q.49   One of the followings is NOT required for the initiation and maintenance of plant tissueculture. Identify that.
(A)   Sucrose    (B)   Kinetin   (C)   Auxin    (D)   Absicic acid

Q.50   Study the relationship between the given two statements:
[P] : Capsanthin is a red coloured principle from Capscicum annum
[Q]: Capsanthin is a vanillylamide of isodecenoic acid Choose the correctanswer.
(A)   Both P and Q are correct          (B)   Both P and Q are incorrect
(C)   P is correct but Q is incorrect   (D)   P is incorrect but Q is correct

Q.51 For theequation PV = nRT to hold true for a gas, all of the following conditions arenecessary EXCEPT for ONE. Identify that.
(A)    The molecules of gas must be of negligible volume
(B)    Collisionsbetween molecules must be perfectly elastic
(C)    The velocities of all molecules must be equal
(D)    The gas must not be decomposing

Q.52 Atracuriumbesylate, a neuromuscular blocking agent, is metabolized through one of thefollowing reactions. Identify that.
(A)    Hoffman elimination   (B)    Hoffman rearrangement
(C)   Michael addition        (D)   Claisen condensation

Q.53 Identifythe metabolite of prontosil responsible for its antibacterial activity.
(A)   Sulphacetamide           (B)   Sulphanilamide
(C)   p-Amino benzoic acid   (D)   Probenecid

Q.54   The central bicyclic ring in penicillin is named as one of the followings. Findthe correct name.
(A) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[3.2.1]heptane
(B)   4-Thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane
(C) 4-Thia-l-azabicyclo[3.2]heptane
(D)   1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[1.2.3]heptane

Q.55   Both of the CMR and PMR spectra of an unknown compound show four absorptionpeaks each. Identify the unknown compound.

Q.56   Out of the four given compounds choose the one which is aromatic?
FiGURE

Q.57   Quantification of minute quantity of a drug from a complex matrix, withoutprior separation can be done using one of the following techniques. Identifythat.
(A)   Coulometry    (B)   Potentiometry
(C)   Fluorescence spectroscopy   (D)   Radioimmunoassay

Q.58   Which one of the following fragmentation pathways involves a double bond and a y- hydrogen in massspectrometry?
(A)   a-Fission    (B)   p1- Fission
(C)   Mc-Lafferty rearrangement    (D)  Retro-Diel's Alder rearrangement

Q.59    Read thefollowing statements carefully about non-aqueous titrations:
[P] : Acetate ion is the strongest base capable of existence in acetic acid.
[Qj: Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a
differentiating solvent for the bases.
[R] : Acetic acid acts as a leveling solvent for various acids like perchloricand
hydrochloric acids.
[S] : Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting aleveling solvent for the bases.
Choose the correct answer.
(A)    P and Q are true and R and S are false
(B)    P and S are true and R and Q are false
(C)    R and Q are true and P and S are false
(D)    R and S are true and P and Q are false

Q.60    Read thefollowing statements carefully about Volhard's method:
[P] : In Volhard's titration, silver ions are titrated with thiocyanates inacidic solution
[Q]: Ferric ions act as indicator in Volhard's method, yielding reddish brownferric thiocyanate
[R] : Volhard's method is used to determine halides
[S] : Volhard's method is a direct titration
Choose the correct set of answers.
(A)   P, Q and R are true and S is false    
(B)   Q, R and S are true and P is false
(C)   R. S and P true and Q is false    
(D)   P, Q, R and S all are true

Q.61 Identify the group of enzymesthat utilizes NADP or NAD as coenzymes and catalyzes biochemical reactions bythe transfer of electronsfrom one molecule to another.
(A)  Isomerases
(B)  Oxidoreductases
(C)  Transferases
(D)  Ligases

Q.62 Glucose is the only source of energy for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A)   Cardiac cel
ls   (B)   Nephrons
(C)   RBCs             (D)   Thrombocytes

Q.63   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] andReason [r]:
Assertion [a] : Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromaticsubstitution; they are deactivating yet ortho-, para - directing.
Reason [r] : In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, reactivity iscontrolled by stronger inductive effect while orientation is controlled by thestronger hyperconjugation effect.
Choose the correct statement.
(A)    [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reasonfor [a]
(C)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correctreason for [a]

Q.64   Given are the four statements about dehydration of alcohols to give alkenes:
[P] : Ease of dehydration of alcohols takes place in the order 3°> 2°>1°
[Q]: Dehydration is acid catalyzed.
[R]: Orientation of the alkene formed is strongly Saytzeff.
[S] : Dehydration is irreversible.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P and Q are correct while R and S are not
(B)    P, Q and R all three are correct but S is not
(C)    P, Q, R and S all are correct
(D)    P, Q and S all three are correct but R is not

Q.65    Choose the correct statement regarding thesynthesisof phenyl n-propyl ether.
(A) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared from n-propylbromide and sodium phenoxide
(B) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared frombromobenzene and sodium n-propoxide
(C) Phenyl n-propyl ether can be prepared byeither of the two methods
(D) Both (A) and (B) are not the correct methods for the synthesis of phenyl n-propylether

Q.66    Read the following statements about SN1 reactions:
[P] : They proceed with complete inversion (Walden inversion).
[Q] : They proceed with racemization plus some net inversion."
[R] : They are characterized by rearrangements.
[S] : They are characterized by the reactivity sequence, CH3>1°>2°>3°Choose the correct combination?
(A)    P and Q are true while R and S are false
(B)    P and R are true while S and Q are false
(C)    Q and R are true while P and S are false
(D)    R and S are true while P and Q are false

Q.67    Read thefollowing statements carefully:
[P] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo electrophilic aromatic substitutionreactions much faster than benzene
[Q] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo Diels Alder addition reaction very fast
[R] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo nucleophilic aromatic substitution reactionfaster than benzene
[S] : Pyrrole is a pie excessive system while thiophene is a pie deficientsystem
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    Q only is true while P, R and S are false
(B)    R and S are true while P and Q are false
(C)    P and R are true while Q and S are false
(D)    P only is true while Q, R and S are false

Q.68   Among the followings which one is not only a non-reducing sugar but also doesnot exhibit mutarotation?
(A)   Glucose    (B)   Maltose   (C)   Lactose    (D)   Sucrose

Q.69   Choose the most basic heterocyclic compound among the followings.
(A)   Pyridine    (B)  Imidazole    (C)   Pyrrole   (D)   Pyrrolidine

Q.70   Followings are some drug derivatives used to increase/decrease the water solubility of the parent drugs:
[P] : Rolitetracycline
[Q] : Erythromycin lactobionate
[R] : Chloramphenicol succinate
[S] : Erythromycin stearate
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P and S are used todecrease it
(B) P, Q and R are used to increase water solubility while S is used todecrease it
(C) Q, S and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used todecrease it
(D) Q and S are used to increase water solubility while P and Q are used todecrease it

Q.71. Study thefollowing statements on prevention of crystalluria. By the given approachescrystalluria can be prevented:
[P] : By co-administration of sulfadiazine, sulfamerazine and sulfamethazine
[Q] : By increasing the pH of urine
[R] : By co-administration of sulphanilamide, sulphamethoxazole and folic acid
[S] : By administration of co-trimoxazole
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P and Q are correct    (B)   R and Sare correct
(C)   P and R are correct    (D)   Q and Rare correct

Q.72 Progesterone is obtained from diosgenin through thefollowing sequence of chemical reactions:
[P] : Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis andOppenauer oxidation
[Q] : Oppenauer   oxidation, Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation),Acetolysis, H2/Pd and Hydrolysis
[R] : Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, Acetylation, Oppenauer oxidation,Hydrolysis and H2/Pd
[S] : Acetylation, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis, Cr03 (oxidation), Oppenauer oxidation and Acetolysis
Choose the correct sequence of reactions.
(A)   P    (B)   Q   (C)   R    (D)   S

Q. 73 Following statements are given for local anaesthetic druglidocaine:
[P] : It contains a xylidine moiety.

[Q] : It can be used as antiarrhythmic agent on oraladministration. [R] : When administered along with adrenaline itstoxicity is reduced and its effect is prolonged.
[S] : Chemically it is 2-diethylamino-2',6'-dimethylphenyl acetamide Choose thecorrect combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q and S       (B)   P, Q and R    (C)   P, R andS        (D)   Q, R and S

Q. 74 One of thefollowing ring systems can be used as the bioisosteric replacement for benzenering in drug design:
IP]: Thiophene    [Q]: Cyclohexa-l,3-diene
[R]: Pyrrolidine    [S} : Imidazoline
Identify the correct answer.
(A)   P    (B)   Q   (C)   R    (D)   S

Q.75   Some of the following statements describe the properties of Dropping MercuryElectrode (DME) correctly:
[P] Constant renewalof electrode surface eliminates poisoningeffects.
[Q] Mercury makes many metal ions easily reducible.
[R] Mercury has large hydrogenover-voltage.
[S] The electrode can get oxidised with ease.
 Identify the correct combination.
(A)    All statements P, Q, R and S are correct
(B)    Statements P. Q and R only are correct
(C)    Statements P, R and S only are correct
(D)    Statements P, Q and S only are correct

Q.76    Penicillinring system is derived from two of the following amino acids:
[P] : Alanine and methionine [Q] : Cysteine and valine [R] : Glycine andcysteine [S] : Methionine and leucine
Choose the correct pair.
(A)   P    (B)   Q   (C)   R    (D)   S

Q.77    For themanagement of which disease the given drug tacrine is used? Identify. NH2
(A)    Glaucoma
(B)    Antidote for acticholinesterase poisoning
(C)    As an insecticide
(D)    Alzheimers disease

Q.78    Low doseaspirin acts as anti-platelet aggregating agent by which one of the followingmechanisms? Find the correct answer.
(A)    It acts as a suicide substrate for COX-1 enzyme presentin platelets
(B)    It acts as a transition state analog for COX-2 enzymepresent in the platelets
(C)    It acts as a reversible inhibitor of lipoxigenase presentin the platelets
(D)    It acts as an affinity label of oxidoreductases presentin the platelets

Q.79 Some statements are given forclavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam:
[P] : All three lack the 6-acylamino side chain
[Q]: All are potent inhibitors of the enzyme ß-lactamase
[R] : All are prodrugs of penicillin
[S] : All have weak antibacterial activity
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P, Q and R are true while S is false
(B)    Q, R and S are true while P is false
(C)    P, R and S are true while Q is false
(D)    P, Q and S are true while R is false

Q.80 Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions in indole giveone of the following products preferably. Identify that.
(A)   3-Substituted indole    (B)  2-Substituted indole
(C)   5-Substituted indole    (D)  6-Substituted indole

Q.81 Which one of the followingspecies is an intermediate in the reaction shown below?

                        NaOH
2CH3CH2CHO ---------> CH3CH2CH(OH).CH(CH3).CHO

(A)    +CH2.CH2.CHO   (B)    -CH2.CH2.CHO
(C)    CH3.+CH.CHO     (D)   CH3.-CH.CHO

Q.82 Which detector is used in gaschromatography for halogen containing compounds specifically?
(A)    Katharometer
(B)    Electron capture detector
(C)    Flame ionization detector
(D)    Thermal conductivity detector

Q.83 Precessional frequency of anucleus depends on the followings:
[P] : Quantum of externally applied magnetic field
[Q] : Quantum of electron density present around the nucleus
[R] : Frequency of applied electromagnetic radiations
[S] : Electronegativity of the element
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P & Q are true    (B)   P & Rare true
(C)   Q & R are true    (D)   P & Sare true

Q.84    Somestatements are given about disodium edetate:
[P] : Disodium edetate is a bidentate ligand
[Q] : Disodium edetate is a complexing agent but not a chelating agent
[R] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of lithium carbonate
[S] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of zinc sulphate
Choose the correct answer.
(A)   Q, R & S are true    (B)   Q &S are true
(C)   S only is true    (D)   P, Q, R &S all are true

Q.85    Which oneof the following amino acids is the most effective contributor of proteinbuffer?
(A)   Alanine    (B)   Glycine   (C)   Histidine    (D)   Arginine

Q.86    Given aresome statements about cycloalkanes:
[P] : Bayer's theory does not apply to four membered rings.
[Q]: Cyclohexane and cyclodecane rings are not flat but are puckered.
[R]: Chair form of cyclohexane experiences van der Waals strain due to flagpoleinteractions.
[S] : Boat form of cyclohexane experiences both torsional and van der Waalsstrain. Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q & R are true and S is false    
(B)   Q & S are true and P & R are false
(C)   P, Q & S are true and R is false
(D)   Q, R & S are true and P is false

Q.87    Phenols aremore acidic than alcohols. This is due to one the following reasons. Identifythat.
(A)    Alkoxide ions are better stabilized by the electronreleasing alkyl groups
(B)    Resonance stabilizes both phenols and phenoxide ions tothe same extent
(C)    Phenols are better stabilized than the phenoxide ionswhile reverse is true for alcohols and alkoxides
(D)    Phenoxide ions are much better stabilized than thealkoxide ions

Q.88    Study thefollowing statements on alkylating agents as antineoplastics:
[P] : They get converted to aziridinium ions and bind  to 7th position -Natom of guanine of DNA base pairs
[Q] : Nitrogen mustards and Sulfur mustards belong to this class of drugs
[R] : They  inhibit  dihydrofolate  reductase  enzyme thereby  inhibiting  DNA synthesis
[S] : They chelate electropositive atoms present in the DNA thereby inhibitingDNA uncoiling
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P and Q are correct    (B)   R and Sare correct
(C)   P and S are correct    (D)   Q and Rare correct

Q.89    Study thefollowing statements about the stereochemistry of steroidal aglycones incardiac glycosides:
[P] :    Rings A-B and C-D are cis fused while B-C is trans fused.
[Q] :    Rings A-B and C-D are trans fused while B-C is cisfused.
[R] :    Rings A-B are trans fused while B-C and C-D are elsfused.
[S] :    Rings A-B are cis fused while B-C and C-D are transfused.
Choose the correct statement.
(A)    P is true while Q, R and S are false
(B)    Q is true while P, R and S are false
(C)    R is true while P, Q and S are false
(D)    S is true while P, R and Q are false

Q.90    Followingare some statements about Captopril:
[P] : It is a prototype molecule in the design of ACE inhibitors
[Q] : It contains a sulphonyl group in its structure
[R] : It has a proline moiety in its structure
[S] : It has an ester linkage
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B)    Q & R are true while P & S are false
(C)    P & R are true while Q & S are false
(D)    R & S are true while P & Q are false

Q.91    Cetirizine as an antihistaminic agent has a low sedative potential due to oneof the following reasons. Identify that.
(A)   It has a chiral center    (B)   It hashigh log P value
(C)   It has high polarity    (D)   It haslow molecular weight

Q.92   There are some criteria which an ideal antacid should fulfill. Some of the criteria are given below:
[P] : The antacid should be absorbable orally and should bufferin the pH range of 4 - 6
[Q]: The antacid should exert its effect rapidly and should not cause a largeevolution of gas
[R] : The antacid should not be a laxative or should not cause constipation
[S] : The antacid should react with the gastric acid and should inhibit pepsin
Choose the correct combination of criteria for an ideal antacid.
(A)   P, Q&R    (B)   Q,R&S    (C)   Q&R   (D)   R & S

Q.93 Titaniumdioxide is used in sun screen products as a topical protective. The topical protective effect oftitanium dioxide is arising due to one of the following properties. Identifythat.
(A)   It has a high bulk density      (B)  It has a high LTV absorptivity
(C)   It has a low water solubility    (D)  It has a high refractive index

Q.94Deferoxamine is used for the treatment of toxicity caused by one of thefollowing ions. Identify that.
(A)   Arsenic    (B)   Cyanide   (C)   Iron    (D)   Lead

Q.95 Parachorand Molar refraction can be categorized under one of the following properties.Identify that.
(A)   Additive properties    (B)  Constitutive properties
(C)   Colligative properties    (D)  Additive and constitutive property

Q.96 East'scamphor method is used for determination of molecular weight of solutes whichare soluble in molten camphor. The basic principle of the method is dependenton one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A)    Elevation of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(B)    Lowering of vapourpressure of camphor by the solute
(C)    Lowering of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(D)    Elevation of boiling point of camphor by the solute

Q.97 Inpolarography, when the limiting current is achieved, one of the followingprocesses takes place. Choose that.
(A)    The rate of electron transferjust matches the rate of mass transfer
(B) The rate of electron transfer is slower than the rate of mass transfer
(C) The rate of electron transfer becomes independent of the rate of masstransfer
(D) The rate of electron transfer far exceeds the rate of mass transfer

Q.98Starch-iodide paste/paper is used as an external indicator in one of thefollowing titrations. Identify that.
(A)    lodometric titration of copper sulphate using sodiumthiosulphate as titrant
(B)    Iodimetric titration of ascorbic acid using iodinesolution as titrant
(C)    Diazotisation titration of sulphadiazine using sodiumnitrite as titrant
(D)    Potassium dichromate titration using sodium thiosulphateas titrant

Q.99 For a dyeto be used as metal indicator in complexometric titrations, some of the dyeproperties are listed below:
[P] : The dye should have distinct colour than the dye-metal complex
[Q]: The dye-metal complex should have a higher stability than themetal-chelate (titrant) complex
[R] : The dye should be capable of complexing with the metal ions
Choose the correct combination of statements for the dye to be used as anindicator in complexometric titrations.
(A)   P & Q are correct while R is not
(B)   Q & R are correct while P is not
(C)   P & R are correct while Q is not
(D)   P, Q & R all are correct

Q.100 Inamperometry, rotating platinum electrode (RPE) is used as indicating electrode.It has certain advantages as well as disadvantages. Read the following statements aboutthe use of rotating platinum electrode in amperometry:
[P] : It causes large diffusion current due to rotation resulting in greatermass transfer
[Q] : It causes greatly reduced residual current due to lack of condensereffect
[R] : It has a low hydrogenover potential
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P, Q & R are all advantages of using RPE inamperometry
(B)    P & R are advantages of RPE while Q is a disadvantage
(C)    Q & R are advantages of RPE while P is a disadvantage
(D)    P & Q are advantages of RPE while R is a disadvantage

Q.101   What will be the approximate Tmax of a drug exhibiting Ka of 2 hr-1 and K of 0.2 hr-1?
(A)    1.2 hr    (B)   2.4hr    (C)   4.8 hr    (D)  2.0 hr   ,

Q.102  There are some statements related to the protein binding of drugs as givenbelow:
[P] : Protein binding decreases the free drug concentration in the system.
[Q]: Protein binding to plasma albumin is an irreversibleprocess.
[R] : Drugs with a low lipophilicity have a high degree of protein binding.
[S] : Protein binding of one drug can be affected by the presence of otherdrug.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B)    Q & R are true while P & S are false 
(C)    R & S are true while P & Q are false
(D)    P & S are true while Q & R are false

Q.103 Based onHenderson-Hasselbalch equation, at what pH value a weak acid would be 99.9%ionized?
(A)   At pH equivalent to pka + 3    (B)  At pH equivalent to pka — 3
(C)   At pH equivalent to pka - 1    (D)  At pH equivalent to pka + 1

Q.104 Some statements about crystals are given below:
[P] : The crystal lattice is constructed from repeating units called unitcells.
[Q]: The external appearance of a crystal is described by crystal habits, suchas
needles, prisms,rosettes etc.
[R] : Polymorphism is the ability of a compound to crystallize as more than one
distinct crystalline species with different internal lattice.
[S] : Hydrates are always more soluble than anhydrous form of the same drugChoose the corrected combination of statements about crystals.
(A)    Statement P, Q and S are correct but R is wrong
(B)    Statement P, Q and R are correct but S is wrong
(C)    Statement Q, R and S are correct but P is wrong
(D)    Statement R, S and P are correct but Q is wrong

Q.105 Which oneof the followings is NOT used in preparation of baby powders?
(A)   Stearic acid    (B)   Boric acid
(C)   Kaolin           (D)   Calciumcarbonate

Q.106 According to Kozeny Carmenequation a 10% change in porosity can produce:
(A)   Two fold change in viscosity    (B)  Five fold change in viscosity
(C)   Three fold change in viscosity   (D)   None of the above

Q.107 Speed disk atomizer rotates at a speed of:
(A)   3000 - 5000 revolutionsper min    
(B)   3000 - 50000 revolutions per min
(C)   300 - 50000 revolutions per min
(D)   300 - 5000 revolutions per min

Q.108 The Goldcoating on a USP Dissolution apparatus - I basket should be:
(A)    Not more than 2.5µ  in thickness
(B)    Not more than 0.001 mm in thickness
(C)    Not more than 0.025
µ inthickness
(D)    Not more than 0.1 mm in thickness

Q.109 Containers used for aerosols should withstand a pressure of:
(A)    130-150 Psig at 130 °F    (B)   140-180 Psig at 130 °F
(C)   140-170 Psig at 120 °F    (D)  120-140 Psig at 120 °F

Q.110   Study thefollowing two statements:
[X] : If the gas is cooled below its critical temperature, less pressure isrequired to liquefy it.
[Y] : At critical temperature and criticalpressure, the liquid will have highest vapor pressure.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    Both X and Y are correct
(B)    X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C)    X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D)    Both X and Y are incorrect

Q.111  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and theReason [r]:
Assertion [a]: For an API of approximately same particle size, the angle ofrepose will increase with departure from spherical shape. Reason
[r]    : Angle of repose is a function of surface roughness andparticle size. With
constant particle size, increase in roughness increases angle of repose.
(A)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [rj are false
(C)    Both fa] and [rj are true and [r] is the correct reasonfor [a]
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correctreason for [a]

Q.112   Study thefollowing two statements:
fX] : When used as granulating agent PEG 6000 improves dissolution rate of thedosage form as it forms a complex with a better solubility.
[Y] : Sodium CMC when used as a binder affects dissolution rate of the dosageform as it is converted to less soluble acid form at low pH of the gastricfluid.
Choose the correct answer.
(A)    Both X and Y are correct
(B)    X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C)    X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D)    Both X and Y are incorrect .

Q.113   Study thefollowing statements about Gram staining:
[P]: Gram positive bacteriaare stained deep violet and Gramnegative bacteria are stained red.
[Q]: Gram positive bacteria are stained red and Gram negative bacteria arestained deep violet.
[R]: The sequence of addition of staining reagents is crystal violet, iodinesolution, alcohol and safranin.
[S] : In Gram positive bacteria thepurple color developed during staining is lost duringalcohol treatment. The cells later take up the safranin and stain red.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q, R & S all are false    £g)  P & Q are false and R & S are true
(C)   P & S are false and Q & R are true   (D)   P & R are false and Q & S are true

Q.114   Choose the correct formula for the calculation of the retail price of a formulation, given by the Govt, ofIndia.
(A)    R.P. = (M.C. + E.D. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) +C.C.
(B)    R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) +E.D.
(C)    R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + E.D. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) +P.M.
(D)    R.P. = (M.C, + C.C. + P.M.+ E.D.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + P.C,

Q.115   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the followingAssertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : In arsenic poisoning,dimercaprol, injected intramuscularly, acts as
antidote by metal complexation. Reason [r]      : EDTAacts as an antidote in lead poisoning, by solubilizing the toxic
metal ions from the tissues.
(A)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(C)    Both [a] and fr] are true and [r] is the correct reasonfor [a]
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correctreason for [a]

Q.116  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a]  andthe Reasons [r & s]:
Assertion fa] : Butylated hydroxytoluene is added as one of the ingredients inthe lipstick formulation.
Reason [r]      : It is a good solvent for the wax -oil mixtures and coloring pigments
present in the lipstick. Reason [sj      : It is anantioxidant and prevents rancidity on storage.
(A)    [a] is true, and [r] and fs] are true and correct reasonsfor [a]
(B)    [a], [r] and fs] are all false
(C)    [a] is true, [s] is false, and [r] is the correct reasonfor [a]
(D)    [a] is true, [r] is false, and [sj is the correct reasonfor fa]

Q.117 Which one of the following statements is FALSE about Interferons?
(A) Interferons are cellular glycoproteins produced by virus infected cell
(B) Interferons have no effects on extracellular virus
(C) Interferons are virus specific agents that can interfere either with DNA orRNA virus
(D) They are produced as potent broad spectrum antiviralagents

Q.118  In relation to sodium chloride and water mixture, read the following statements:
[P] : Mixture is eutectic in nature
[Q]: It has eutectic point -21.2°C
[R]: The composition of eutectic is 25.3% by Mass
[S] : The mixture is a true eutectoid and may exist as peritectic also.
Which of the set of statements is correct?
(A)   P&Q    (B)   Q,R&S    (C)   P, Q&S   (D),  P, R & S

Q.119  In relation tosterilization, what is the meaning of D300F - 2minutes?
(A)    Death of
all microorganisms in 2 minutes
(B)    Death of 300 microorganism in 2 minutes
(C)    Death of all microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F
(D)    Death of 90% microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F

Q.120   Choose thecorrect combination:
        i    Rod mill                  p   Dried plant drug    
        ii    Hammermill            q   Thermolabile drug    
        iii    Fluid energymill      r     Paint   
(A)    i & q,    ii & p,   iii & r    (g)   i&r, ii&p,    iii & q
(C)    i & q,    ii & r,   iii & p    (D)   i&p, ii&q,    iii & r

Q.121   Which one of thefollowing statements is NOT true for stainless steel 316?
(A) It is also called inox steel
(B) It contains 10.5 - 11% chromium
(C) Due to the presence of chromium it exhibits passivation phenomenon
(D) It is not affected by acids

Q.122   Precise controlof flow is obtained by which one of the followings?
(A)   Needle valve    (B)   Butterfly valve
(C)   Gate valve       (D)   Globevalve

Q.123   Heat sensitivematerials like fruit juice are evaporated in which one of the followings?
(A)    Long tube vertical evaporator
(B)    Calandria type evaporator
(C)    Falling film type evaporator
(D)    Forced circulation type evaporator

Q. 124   Which of thefollowing conditions favor formation of large crystals?
(A)   High degree of supersaturation   (B)   Low nucleation rate
(C)   High magma density                  (D)   Rapid cooling of magma

Q.125   If M, L, T, Qand θ are dimensional representations of mass, length, time, heat andtemperature respectively, then what is the dimension of fluid thermalconductivity?
(A)   Q/Mθ   (B)   Q/TL2θ    (C)   Q/TLθ    (D)   M/LT

Q.126   Which one of thefollowing properties is characteristic of microemulsions?
(A)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than1 µm
(B)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than10 µm
(C)    These are non-transparent systems with droplet size lessthan 1 µm
(D)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than1 nm

Q.127  Which one of thefollowings would be an offence in accordance with the provisions of the Drugsand Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A) Packing of Paediatric oral drops in 30 ml pack
(B) Packing of Oxytocin injection in a single unit blister pack
(C) Packing of Schedule X drugs in 5 ml injection pack
(D) Packing of Aspirin tablets (75 mg) in 14 tablet strip pack

Q.128  Which one of thefollowing colours is NOT permitted to be used in drugs by the Drugs andCosmetics Act, 1940?
(A)   Chlorophyll       (B)  Riboflavin    (C)   Tartrazine       (D)   Amaranth

Q.129  At equalconcentrations which    one of the following mucilages willpossess maximum
viscosity?
(A)    Maize starch    (B)   Ricestarch
(C)   Wheat starch    (D)   Potato starch

Q.130   By whichmechanism the microorganisms are killed by autoclaving?
(A)    Coagulation of the cellular proteins of themicroorganisms
(B)    Alkylation of essential cellular metabolites ofmicroorganisms
(C)    Stopping reproduction of microorganism cells as a resultof lethal mutations
(D)    Oxidation of RNA of microorganisms

Q.131   Manufacture andsale of some of the following drugs is prohibited in India:
[P] : Fixed dose combination of atropine and antidiarrhoeals
[Q]: Penicillin eye ointment
[R]: Nimesulide paediatric drops
[S] : Gatifloxacin tablets
Choose the drugs which are prohibited?
(A)   P, Q&R    (B)   Q, S&R
(C)   R, S&P    (D)   P, Q, R & S

Q.132   Following arethe phases of clinical trials:
[P] : Human pharmacology
[Q]: Therapeutic confirmatory trials
[R] : Post marketing trials
[S] : Therapeutic exploratory trials
Choose the correct order of phases of clinical trial.
(A)   P, Q, R, S    (B)   P,R, Q, S
(C)   P,Q,S,R    (DI P, S, Q, R

Q.133   The integrity ofseals in case of vials and bottles is determined by some tests. Some of themare given below:
[P]: Leaker's test
[Q]: Water hammer test
[R]: Spark tester probe
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P & Q    (B)   Q&R   (C)   P&R    (D)   P, Q & Rall

Q.134   Study thefollowing four statements:
[P] : Gram negative bacteria produce potent pyrogenic substances calledendotoxins
[Q]: Ethylene oxide mixed with carbon dioxide or fluorinated hydrocarbons isused in gas sterilization
[R]: D value is the time (for heat or chemical exposure) or the dose (for radiationexposure) required for the microbial population to decline by one logarithmicunit
[S] : Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus {Bacillus stearothermophilus)are used for sterility testing of moist heat sterilization process
Choose the correct answer.
(A)    P, Q & R are correct but S is incorrect
(B)    Q, R & S are correct but P is incorrect
(C)    R, S & P are correct but Q is incorrect
(D)    P, Q, R & S all are correct

Q.135   Read thefollowing statements:
[P] : The surface area measurement using BET approach utilizes argon gas foradsorption
[Q]: Full form of BET is Brunauer, Emmett and Teller
Choose the correct answer.
(A)   P & Q both are correct
(B)   P is correct but Q is incorrect
(C)    Q is correct but P is incorrect
(D)   Both P & Q are incorrect

Q. 136   Based on theDLVO theory of force of interaction between colloidal particles, which one ofthe followings lead to attractive interaction between two particles?
(A)   Solvation forces    (T4).   Electrostaticforces
(C)   van der Waals forces    (B)   Stericforces

Q.137  Readthe following statements with regard to viscosity of a polymer solution:
[P] : Specific viscosity of a polymer solution is obtained as relativeviscosity + 1
[Q]: Relative viscosity is the ratio of the viscosity of the solution to theviscosity of pure solvent
[R]: Kinematicviscosity is defined as the viscosity of the liquid at a definite temperature
[S] : The unit for kinematic viscosity is poise or dyne sec cm"2 Indicatethe correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & S are correct but Q&R are wrong
(B)    Q & R are correct but P & S are wrong
(C)    P & Q are correct but R & S are wrong
(D)    R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong

Q.138  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and theReason [r]
Assertion [a]: Salts having no ions in common with the slightly solubleelectrolyte increase its solubility
Reason [r]: Such salts lower the activity coefficient of the slightly solubleelectrolyte
(A)    Both [a] and [r] are true and fr] is the correct reasonfor [a]
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(C)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correctreason for [a]

Q.139  What negativeadsorption would do?
(A)    Decrease the surface free energy as well as the surface tension
(B)    Increase the surface free energy as well as the surfacetension
(C)    Decrease the surface free energy but increase the surfacetension
(D)    Increase the surface free energy but decrease the surfacetension

Q.140  Read the followingstatements:
[P] : At temperature below Kraft point, micelles will, not form
[Q]: At Kraft point, solubility ofsurfactant equals CMC
[R] : Kraft point increases with increasing chain length of hydrocarbon
[S] : Kraft point is normally exhibited by non-ionic surfactants
Choose the correct combination of answers.
(A)    P is correct but Q, R & S are wrong
(B)    R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong
(C)   P, Q & R are correct but S is wrong
(D)   
P, Q, R & S all are correct

Q.141 Twostatements are given regarding the uniformity of dispersion test (LP.):
[P] : It is evaluated using 6 tablets and 500 mL water
[Q]: It involves measuring the dispersion time of each tablet
Choose the correct set of statements.
(A)    P is correct while Q is incorrect
(B)    P & Q both are correct
(C)    P is incorrect while Q is correct
(p)    Both P & Q are incorrect

Q.142 Read the followingstatements:
[P] : Caramelization occurs in acidic conditions
[Q]: Caramel is optically inactive glucose
[R] : Caramel is obtained by burning of glucose
[S] : Caramel is obtained by degradation of fructose
Choose the right combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true but R & S are false
(B)    P & S are true but Q & R are false
(C)    Q & R are true but P & S are false
(D)    R & S are true but P & Q are false

Q.143 Read the followingstatements regarding value added tax (VAT):
[P] : It is an indirect tax
[Q]: It is charged at the rate of 8%
[R] : It is tax at source
[S] : It is effective since April 2010
Choose the correct option.
(A)    P & Q are true R & S are false
(B)    R & S are true P & Q are false
(C)    P & R are true Q & S are false
(D)    Q & S are true P & R are false

Q.144 Find theprocess by which the conversion of sulfasalazine to sulfapyidine and 5-amino salicylic acid takes place in the colon?
(A)    Hydrolysis    (B)   Deamination
(C)   Acetylation    (D)   Azoreduction

Q.145 How muchquantity (in grams) of sodium chloride is needed to make 30 ml of a 2% isotonicdrug (sodium chloride equivalent 0.20) solution?
(A) 0.60 (C)   0.15
(B) 0.27 (D)   0.12

Q.146  Read the followingstatements about lyophilization:
[P] : Lyophilization cannot be done in final containers like multiple dosecontainers.
[Q]: Lyophilized product needs special methods for reconstitution.
[R] : Lyophilization causes protein denaturation in tissues.
[S] : Lyophilization is suitable for drying the thermolabile products.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P is true and Q, R & S are false   (B)   Q is true and P, R & S are false
(C)   R is true and P, Q & S are false   (D)   S is true and P, Q & R are false

Q.147  In apharmacokinetic model depicted in the following scheme, what is the half-life of the drug if the apparent volume of distribution of the drugis 25 L?
250 mg i.v.    ?
0.173 /hr
?
(A)    1.7 hr    (B)   2hr   (C)   4 hr    (D)   3 hr

Q.148 A sampleof paracetamol tablets claims to contain 500 mg of paracetamol. But, onanalysis by Govt. Analyst, it was found to contain 200 mg. As per Drugs andCosmetics Act, 1940, this product would be categorized as what?
(A)   Misbranded drug    (B)   Adulterateddrug
(C)   Spurious drug       (D)  Unethical drug

Q.149 Use ofwhich of the following artificial sweeteners is permitted in various dosage forms of Ayurveda, Siddha andUnani proprietary medicines?
(A)   Sucralose    (B)  Aspartame    (C)   Saccharin   (D)   All of them

Q.150 What willbe the maintenance dose of a sustained release 12 hour formulation of drug X exhibiting one compartmentkinetics with a half-life of 6 hours, plasma concentration (steady state) 6ug/ml, volume of distribution 30 L, and an oral bioavailability of 80%?
(A)   249.48 mg   (B)   225.48 mg   (C)   311.85 mg    (D)   281.85 mg


KEY OF GPAT 2012 | ANSWERS OF GPAT 2012 - Answers of Set A, Set B, Set C, Set D papers


SET A

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

01

A

21

D

41

B

61

B

81

D

101

A

121

D

141

D

02

C

22

A

42

A

62

C

82

B

102

D

122

A

142

B

03

B

23

C

43

A

63

A

83

A

103

A

123

C

143

C

04

A

24

D

44

B

64

B

84

C

104

A

124

B

144

D

05

A

25

C

45

B

65

A

85

C

105

B

125

D

145

C

06

B

26

B

46

B

66

C

86

B

106

B

126

A

146

D

07

C

27

C

47

A

67

D

87

D

107

C

127

A

147

C

08

B

28

D

48

D

68

D

88

A

108

B

128

D

148

A

09

D

29

A

49

D

69

D

89

A

109

B

129

D

149

D

10

C

30

B

50

C

70

B

90

C

110

A

130

A

150

C

11

B

31

C

51

C

71

A

91

C

111

C

131

D

 

12

D

32

D

52

A

72

A

92

C

112

B

132

D

13

D

33

D

53

B

73

C

93

D

113

C

133

B

14

B

34

C

54

B

74

A

94

C

114

B

134

D

15

A

35

B

55

B

75

A

95

D

115

D

135

C

16

D

36

B

56

B

76

B

96

C

116

D

136

C

17

A

37

B

57

D

77

D

97

D

117

C

137

B

18

D

38

C

58

C

78

A

98

C

118

A

138

A

19

B

39

A

59

A

79

D

99

C

119

D

139

B

20

C

40

A

60

A

80

A

100

D

120

B

140

C

SET B

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

01

C

21

A

41

B

61

A

81

A

101

B

121

C

141

A

02

B

22

A

42

A

62

D

82

D

102

D

122

D

142

D

03

D

23

C

43

A

63

D

83

A

103

C

123

C

143

D

04

C

24

C

44

C

64

B

84

D

104

A

124

D

144

C

05

B

25

A

45

C

65

A

85

B

105

A

125

C

145

C

06

D

26

B

46

C

66

B

86

C

106

C

126

A

146

B

07

D

27

B

47

C

67

C

87

B

107

D

127

A

147

B

08

C

28

B

48

D

68

D

88

C

108

D

128

B

148

C

09

D

29

B

49

A

69

D

89

D

109

D

129

B

149

D

10

A

30

C

50

D

70

C

90

A

110

B

130

C

150

C

11

C

31

A

51

B

71

A

91

B

111

A

131

B

 

12

D

32

B

52

A

72

D

92

B

112

B

132

C

13

B

33

A

53

C

73

C

93

B

113

D

133

B

14

C

34

A

54

B

74

A

94

C

114

A

134

D

15

D

35

A

55

C

75

C

95

B

115

C

135

D

16

D

36

C

56

A

76

B

96

B

116

C

136

A

17

C

37

A

57

D

77

A

97

B

117

B

137

C

18

A

38

D

58

B

78

A

98

A

118

D

138

B

19

A

39

A

59

D

79

B

99

D

119

A

139

D

20

B

40

D

60

D

80

B

100

D

120

D

140

A

 SET C

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

01

C

21

C

41

B

61

A

81

C

101

C

121

A

141

D

02

D

22

D

42

C

62

A

82

B

102

C

122

D

142

C

03

A

23

A

43

D

63

B

83

D

103

C

123

B

143

C

04

C

24

D

44

A

64

B

84

D

104

B

124

B

144

B

05

D

25

C

45

B

65

C

85

B

105

A

125

B

145

D

06

A

26

A

46

B

66

B

86

C

106

C

126

B

146

D

07

A

27

D

47

B

67

A

87

D

107

B

127

C

147

D

08

B

28

B

48

A

68

C

88

D

108

D

128

B

148

C

09

A

29

D

49

D

69

B

89

C

109

A

129

D

149

C

10

A

30

A

50

D

70

D

90

C

110

D

130

C

150

B

11

B

31

B

51

C

71

A

91

C

111

D

131

A

 

12

C

32

C

52

D

72

A

92

A

112

B

132

A

13

A

33

D

53

D

73

D

93

B

113

D

133

A

14

B

34

A

54

D

74

B

94

B

114

C

134

B

15

A

35

C

55

B

75

C

95

B

115

A

135

D

16

D

36

B

56

C

76

D

96

A

116

D

136

A

17

A

37

A

57

C

77

C

97

A

117

C

137

D

18

D

38

A

58

B

78

C

98

C

118

B

138

C

19

B

39

B

59

D

79

B

99

A

119

A

139

D

20

A

40

C

60

A

80

D

100

A

120

D

140

C

SET D

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

01

A

21

B

41

B

61

B

81

C

101

C

121

B

141

B

02

A

22

B

42

D

62

B

82

B

102

B

122

C

142

C

03

B

23

B

43

C

63

A

83

C

103

C

123

D

143

A

04

A

24

B

44

B

64

D

84

D

104

D

124

D

144

B

05

A

25

A

45

D

65

A

85

A

105

A

125

C

145

D

06

D

26

D

46

D

66

D

86

C

106

C

126

A

146

A

07

A

27

D

47

C

67

B

87

D

107

D

127

A

147

C

08

D

28

C

48

C

68

B

88

B

108

D

128

C

148

B

09

B

29

C

49

A

69

D

89

C

109

D

129

A

149

D

10

A

30

B

50

B

70

C

90

A

110

B

130

B

150

D

11

C

31

D

51

B

71

A

91

B

111

A

131

A

 

12

A

32

A

52

B

72

A

92

A

112

A

132

C

13

D

33

A

53

A

73

D

93

C

113

B

133

B

14

B

34

C

54

C

74

C

94

D

114

B

134

D

15

D

35

B

55

C

75

D

95

A

115

C

135

C

16

A

36

D

56

C

76

C

96

D

116

B

136

A

17

C

37

A

57

D

77

D

97

A

117

B

137

D

18

B

38

A

58

A

78

C

98

B

118

C

138

C

19

A

39

D

59

D

79

D

99

C

119

D

139

B

20

A

40

C

60

D

80

C

100

D

120

C

140

B

 

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