GPAT-2010 Exam Solved Question Paper

By: Pharma Tips | Views: 14981 | Date: 22-Sep-2015

GPAT-2010 Exam Solved Question Paper

Q.l      The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is

(A)   Pyridoxine        (B)   Thiamine (C)   Nicotinic acid    (D)   Inositol
Ans.  B

Q.2      Gingkgo biloba is used for its
(A)   Expectorant activity (B)   Lipid lowering activity
(C)   PAF antagonistic activity                                 (D)Antidepressant activity
 Ans. C

Q.3      The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

(A)   <1% (B)   3.5-4% (c)   1-1.5% (D)   2-2.5%
Ans. B

Q.4      Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders :
 (A)   Systolic hypertension (B)   Unstable angina
(C)   Pulmonary hypertension (D)    Hypertension due to eclampsia
 Ans. C

Q.5      Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of the steroid nucleus :
(A)   5a, 14a- (B)5a, 14ß - (C)   5ß , 14a-        (D)   5ß ,14ß            
Ans. D

Q.6      Quassia wood is adulterated with
(A)   Brucea antidysentrica (B)   Cassia angustifoila
(C)   Cinnamomum zeylanicum (D)   Cephaelis ipecacuanaha                 
Ans. B

Q.7      Eugenol is present in
(A)   Fennel (B)   Tulsi             (C)   Cardamom   (D)   Coriander
Ans. B

Q.8      Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia?

(A)  Pentostatin (B)   Methotrexate (C)   Imatinib (D)   L-Asparaginase
Ans. C

Q.9      Which  of the  following  monoclonal  antibodies  is  prescribed  for  patients  with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
(A)   Infliximab        (B)   Abciximab  (C)   Gemtuzumab    (D)   Rituximab                
Ans. D

Q.10    Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum :
(A.)   Artemisinin      (B)   Primaquine (C)   Quinine (D)   Mefloquine
Ans. B             

Q.ll    Which one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein coupled

receptors? (A)   Epinephrine     (B)   Insulin (C)   Dopamine        (D)   TSH
Ans. B
Q.12    Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?
(A)   Lamivudine     (B)   Zidovudine (C)   Indinavir (D)   Ribavirin
Ans.  B

Q.13    Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in
(A)   cholinergic receptors (B)   dopaminergic receptors (C)   GABAergic receptors (D)   adrenergic receptors
Ans. A

Q.14    Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

(A)   Piroxicam (B)   Celecoxib (C)Nabumetone     (D)    Ketorolac
Ans. C

Q.15    Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?

(A)   Chlorpromazine (B)   Haloperidol
(C)   Risperidone (D)   Flupentixol
Ans.  C

Q.16    Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?

(A)   Tranexamic acid (B)   Streptokinase
(C)   Aminocaproic acid (D)   None of the above              
Ans. B

Q.17    Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using
 (A)   Donepezil (B)   Edrophonium        (C)   Atropine (D)   Pancuronium               
Ans. B

Q.18    Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?
(A)   Daclizumab      (B)  Prednisone (C)  Sirolimus (D)   Tacrolimus
Ans.  D

Q.19    The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is
(A)   acidic   (B)Basic    (C)   neutral (D)   amphoteric
 Ans. B

Q.20    At physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the
 (A)   cationic form (B)   unionized form (C)  zwitterionic form (D)   anionic form
Ans. B

Q.21    Which one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic convulsions?
(A)   Phenytoin (B)   Lithium (C)   Sodium valproate (D)   Fluoxetine
Ans. C

Q.22    An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is
(A)   pyrrole (B)   isoxazole (C)   phenol (D)   tetrazole
Ans. -D

Q.23    The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :

(A)   Roxythromycin (B)   Adriamycin (C)   Aureomycin      (D)   Rifamycin
Ans. D

Q.24    For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT
(A)     O-demethylation                                  (B)   aromatic oxidation
(C)   benzylic hydroxylation                           (D)   amide hydrolysis
Ans. B

Q.25 The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa, can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that crosses the bloodbrain barrier by
(A)    increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it
(B) decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa
(C) decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS
(D) decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS
Ans. B

Q.26    Ethambutol molecule has    
(A)  two chiral centers and 3 stereoisomers
(B)  two chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers
(C) two chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers
D) one chiral center and 2 stereoisomers
Ans. B

Q.27    A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo transition on
(A)   Polarizability (B)   Dielectric constant (C)   Dipole moment (D)   Refractivity
Ans.  C

Q.28    X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its (A)   Optical rotatory dispersive power (B)   Absolute configuration

(C)   Relative configuration (D)   Optical purity
Ans. B

Q.29    Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A)   A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is excited to higher energy levels
(B)  In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is paired with the electron in the ground state orbital
(C) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state
(D) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the molecule always shows fluorescence phenomenon
Ans. C

Q.30    Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity :
(A)   Niacinamide               (B)Vitamin B12 (C)   Pyridoxal phosphate  (D)   Thiamine
Ans. C

Q.31    Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally :
(A)   pH (B)   Refractivity (C)   Viscosity (D)  Conductivity
Ans. D

Q.32    Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) Carbon NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR 12 13
1 C
Ans. Have fun (all)
(B) C nucleus is not magnetically active
(C)   Both C and *H have same spin quantum numbers
(D)        The gyromagnetic ratio of *H is lesser than that of
Q.33    In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place :

(A)   Citrate synthase (B)   Aconitase (C)    Maleate dehydrogenase (D)   Succinyl Co-A synthase
Ans. C

Q.34    Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by (A)   hydrogen bond formation (B)   covalent bond formation

(C)      complex formation (D)   the action of London forces
Ans. A

Q.35    In the mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility occurs :
(A)   Chemical incompatibility (B)   Therapeutic incompatibility (C)   Physical incompatibility (D)   Tolerance incompatibility
Ans. C

Q.36    Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(A)   Lactose                                  (B)   Ampoules
(C)   Hardness of tablets                (D)Gelatin
Ans. D

Q.37    The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :
(A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose
(B) Elimination half-life remains constant,
(C)   Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
(D)   Amount of drug excreted through remains constant
Ans. C

Q.38    In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is
(A) Schedule M      (B)   Schedule C (C)   Schedule Y       (D)   Schedule H
Ans. A
Q.39    Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations :
(A)   Depilatory preparations (B)   Epilatory preparations (C)  Vanishing creams (D)   Skin tan preparations
Ans. A

Q.40    Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

(A)   Aluminium chloride (B)   Bentonite (C)   Tragacanth (D)   Sodium biphosphate         
Ans. A

Q.41    The healing agent used in hand creams is
(A)   soft paraffin (B)   urea
(C)   bees wax (D)    stearyl alcohol
Ans. A

Q.42    Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

(A)   Effective renal blood flow                  (B) Renal drug excretion rate
(C)   Active renal secretion                       (D)   Glomerular filtration rate
Ans.  D

Q.43    Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

(A)   cyclodextrins     (B)   dextrans  (C) dendrimers       (D)   liposomes

Q.44    Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?
(A)   Sodium chloride (B)   Mannitol (C)   Starch (D)   HPMC
Ans. B

Q.45    The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

(A)   First order kinetics                           (B)   Zero order kinetics
(C)   Mixed order kinetics                         (D)Dissolution rate
Ans. D

Q.46    Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discoloration of the tablets?
(A)   Dicalcium phosphate (B)   Microcrystalline cellulose (C)   Starch (D)   Lactose
Ans. D

Q.47    The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to
(A)   0.4 micron        (B)25 micron (C)   50 micron (D)   10 micron
Q.48    What quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65 % v/v alcohol?

(A)   480 mL of 95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol  
(B)   320 mL of 95 %   and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol  
(C) 440 mL of 95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol  
(D)360 mL of 95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol
Ans. B

Q.49    The role of borax in cold creams is
(A) anti-microbial agent                (B) to provide fine particles to polish skin
(C) in-situ emulsifier                     (D) antioxidant
Ans. A

Q.50    Choose the right combination:
(A) Quinine', antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid
(B) Reserpine, -antihypertensive, indole alkaloid
(C) Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh
(D) Palmitic acid, salicylic acid , fatty acids
Ans. B
Q.51    Triterpenoids are active constituents of
(A)   Jaborandi (B)   Rhubarb (C)   Stramonium            (D)   Brahmi                        
Q.52    Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by        
(A)   Mayer's reagent   (B) Dragendroff Reagent     
(C)   Picric acid             (D)   Millon's reagent
Ans. D

Q.53    Anisocytic stomata are present in   
(A)   Senna                      (B)Digitalis
(C)   Belladonna                  (D)   Coca
Ans. C

Q.54    Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family     
(A)Scrophulariacea   (B) Leguminosae 
(C)   Polygalaceae   (D)   Rubiaceae
Ans. A

Q.55    Tropane alkaloids are NOT present in
(A)   Datura stramonium (B) Erythroxylum coca
(C)   Duboisia myoporoides (D)   Lobelia inflata
Ans. D
Q.56    Guggul lipids are obtained from             
(A) Commiphora molmol                 (B)   Boswellia serrata
(C) Commiphora wightii                   (D)   Commiphora abyssinica
Ans. C

Q.57    An example of N-glycoside is          
 (A)   Adenosine               (B) Sinigrin   
(C)   Rhein-8-glucoside    (D)   Aloin
Ans. A

Q.58    One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of
(A)  94,000 spores    (B)   92,000 spores        (C)   90,000 spores    (D)   91,000 spores                        
 Ans. A

Q.59    Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C :

(A)   Interferon with Ribavirin (B)   Interferon with Zidovudine
(C)   Interferon with Stavudine   D)   Interferon with Lamivudine
  Ans. B
Q.60    Aliskiren acts by (A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
(B) inhibiting the release of rennin (C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the   receptor (D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone
Ans. B
Q.61    Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of
(A)   Potassium (B)   Quinidine (C)   Diuretics (D)   Antacids
Ans. B & C
Q.62    The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings :
(A)   LDL-receptor concentration (B)   VLDL secretion
(C) Mevalonic acid formation (D)   Co-enzyme A formation                       
Ans. C
Q.63 Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?
(A)   Chlorpromazine             (B) Astemizole
(C)   Haloperidol                 (D)   Domperidone
      Ans. B      

Q.64    Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by
(A)   Cytomegalovirus           (B)   Candida albicans
(C)    Herpes zoster virus      (D)   Hepatitis B virus
 Ans. A & C      

Q.65    Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit :

(A)   Norfloxacin – Metronidazole         (B)   Alprazolam - Paracetamol
(C)   Cisapride – Omeprazole               (D)Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid
Ans. D
Q.66    Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs :
(A)    Sulphonamides       (B)   Macrolides
 (C)   Penicillins                (D)   Tetracyclines
Ans. A

Q.67    Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material :
(A)   Phthalic anhydride      (B)   Terephthalic acid
(C)   Phthalamic acid          (D)   Phthalimide    
Ans. B

Q.68    The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is
(A)   ureide (B)   imidazolidinone (C)   dihydropyrimidine (D)   tetrahydropyrimidine
 Ans. A

Q.69    Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug
(A)   Atropine (B)   Carvedilol
(C)   Neostigmine   (D)   d-Tubocurarine           
Ans. D

Q.70    Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(A) 2-Diethylaminoethyl 4-aminobenzoate
(B) N,N-Diethyl 4-aminobenzoate (C) 4-Aminobenzamidoethyl amine (D) 4-Amino-2-diethylaminoethyl benzoate     
Ans. A  &  D

Q.71    Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity :
(A)   1,3-Disubstitution (B)   5,5-Disubstitution    (C)   1,5-Disubstitution (D)   3,3-Disubstitution
Ans. B

Q.72    Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

(A)   Imipramine      (B)   Iproniazide (C)   Fluoxetin        (D)Naphazoline
 Ans. C

Q.73    Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system :
(A)   Pyrimidine   (B)Benzimidazole      (C)   Benzothiazole   (D)   Oxindole                
Ans. B

Q.74    A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is
(A)   Fluvastatin      (B)   Cerivastatin (C)   Lovastatin        (D)   Somatostatin                   
 Ans. C

Q.75    Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as
(A)   alkylating agent before metabolism             (B)alkylating agent after metabolism
(C)   phosphorylating agent after metabolism     (D)   DNA intercalating agent                  
Ans. B

Q.76    Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure :
(A)   an endoperoxide (B)   an exoperoxide
(C)   an epoxide (D)   an acid hydrazide               
Ans. A

Q.77    Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature :
(A)   PDA detector (B)   Refractive Index detector (C)   Electrochemical detector (D)   Fluorescence detector
Ans.  B

Q.78    One of the following statements is NOT true :
(A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement
(B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement
(C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also
(D)     High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also
Ans. C

Q.79    In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity :

(A)   Chloro group at position 6                     (B)   Methyl group at position 2
(C)  Sulphamoyl group at position 7               (D)   Hydrophobic group at position 3               
Ans. C

Q.80    Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because
(A)   it gets degraded in the GIT                  (B)   it causes severe diarrhoea
(C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth        (D)   it is not absorbed from the GIT
Ans. D

Q.81    In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than
(A)   350 nm        (B)   200 nm
(C)    300 nm        (D)   250 nm                  
Ans. A

Q.82    Glass transition temperature is detected through
(A)   X-Ray diffractometery                        (B)   Solution calorimetery
(C)   Differential scanning calorimetery        (D)   Thermogravimetric analysis
Ans. C

Q.83    In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

(A)   volatility                          (B)   solubility               
(C)thermal conductivity          (D)   polarizability
Ans. D
Q.84    Oxidative phosphorylation involves
(A) Electron transport system
(B) Substrate level phosphorylation
(C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle
(D) None of the above
Ans. A

Q.85    Coulter counter is used in determination of

(A)   particle surface area       (B)   particle size
(C)   particle volume                (D)all of A, B, C                
Ans. D

Q.86    Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
(A)   bi-exponentially (B)   tri-exponentially
(C)   non-exponentially (D)   mono-exponentially                  
Ans. D            

Q.87    The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is
given as :

(A)   temperature between 8°C and 25°C        (B)   temperature below 20C
(C)   temperature at 0°C                                  (D)    temperature between 2cC and S:C                 
Ans. D  
Q.88    Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to
(A) increase their biological activity
(B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body
(C) increase their aqueous solubility
(D)    all of the above
Ans. D

Q.89    The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure :

(A)   cc-Chymotrypsin (B)   Hemoglobin (C)   Insulin (D)   Myoglobin
Q.90    Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by      
(A)   first order kinetics                   (B)second order kinetics
 (C)   zero order kinetics                 (D)   non-linear kinetics                  
Ans. C

Q.91    In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former :
(A)   Nitrocellulose                              (B)   Polylactic acid
(C)   Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose   (D)   Cellulose acetate phthalate               
Ans. A

Q.92    Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using             
(A)   Sheep blood      (B)   Mice lymph                   
 (C)    Horse plasma    (D)   Fertile eggs
Ans. D

Q.93 A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is :

(A)   125%     (B)   250 %
(C)   12.5%    (D)   1.25%                

Q.94    Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials

(A)   Phase I       (B)   Phase II
(C) Phase III      (D)   Phase
Ans. B

Q.95    Class 100 area is referred to
(A)   Manufacturing area         (B)   Aseptic area
(C)   Clean room                     (D)   Ware house
 Ans. B

Q.96 How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution?

(A)   750 mL         (B)   1000 mL
( c)   1250 mL       (D)   1500 mL               
Ans. C
Q.97 The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be
(A)10 L           (B)   100 L
(C)   1.0 L      (D)   0.10 L                               
Ans. A            

Q.98 It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours
of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

(A)   600 mg (B)   300 mg                 (C) 30 mg               (D)   60 mg              
Ans. B

Q.99    Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?
(A) The Director General of Health Services
(B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory
(C) The Drugs Controller General of India
(D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory                           
Ans. D

Q.100   In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point?          
 (A)   Lyophilization            (B)   Spray drying
(C)   Spray congealing      (D)   Centrifugation            
Ans. A

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